Инфоурок Иностранные языки ТестыШкольная олимпиады по английскому языку

Школьная олимпиады по английскому языку

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Олимпиада по английскому языку

школьный этап

2015-2016 учебный год

 

Пояснительная записка

 

Основными целями и задачами Олимпиады являются выявление и развитие у

обучающихся творческих способностей и интереса к английскому языку, создание необходимых условий для поддержки одаренных детей, пропаганда лингвистических и социокультурных знаний, связанных с историей и современным функционированием различных вариантов английского языка и историей и культурой англоязычных стран. 

Задания олимпиады  носят проблемно-поисковый характер и выявляют

творческий потенциал участника, соответствуют всем требованиям тестовых

заданий.

Задачей школьного этапа олимпиады по английскому языку является популяризация английского языка в школе, привлечение как можно большего числа школьников к участию в олимпиаде, поэтому задания должны быть интересными и посильными для учащихся соответствующих возрастных групп. 

Для обеспечения комплексного характера проверки уровня коммуникативной

компетенции участников  школьный этап олимпиады проводится по трем видам речевой деятельности:

 конкурс понимания письменной речи (Reading) 

лексико-грамматический тест (Use of English) 

конкурс письменной речи (Writing).

Для школьного этапа рекомендуется уровень:

для 5-6 классов – A1 -A2;

для 7-8 классов – A2 -B1;

для 9 - 11 классов – B1 -B2.

При подготовке заданий сочетаются задания разного уровня сложности (т.е.

сочетаются более сложные и менее сложные задания, чтобы участники могли выполнить хотя бы одно олимпиадное задание). Уровни сложности разных заданий внутри пакета заданий для одной возрастной группы не  расходятся больше, чем на одну  ступень.

 

Время проведения конкурсов:

5-6 классы — 50 минут

7-8 классы - 50минут

9 - 11 классы — 75 минут

Максимальное количество баллов

5-6 классы -85 баллов

7-8 классы — 30 баллов

9 - 11 классы — 50 баллов


Комплект заданий для учащихся 5-6 классов

 

                                       Reading

                                    15 minutes.

                                       Task 1.

 Read the text about Martin and mark the sentences with the letter (T) if the information is true and with the letter (F) if it is false. 

My clothes. 
I like trousers and jeans. I don’t like shirts but I like T-shirts and sweatshirts. I also like baseball caps. My favourite colours are blue and red. 
At school I usually wear my black trousers or blue jeans, and a T-shirt or sweatshirt. I’ve got a lot of T-shirts. My favourite T-shirt is blue with a picture of a tiger on it. I usually wear trainers. I’ve got some black shoes, but I don’t like them. 
At the moment I’m wearing blue jeans, a red and blue sweatshirt and my new trainers. I really love my new trainers! 

1. Martin likes jeans. ___ 
2. He doesn’t like sweatshirts. ___ 
3. His favourite colours are blue and green. ___ 
4. He usually wears green trousers at school. ___ 
5. His favourite T-shirt is black. ___ 
6. He doesn’t like his black shoes. ___ 
7. Martin wears trainers. ___ 
8. At the moment he is wearing green and blue sweatshirt. ___ 
9. He doesn’t like trainers. ___ 
10. Martin has got a lot of T-shirts.___ 

                                                  Task 2

Read the text and fill in the correct word.

 love  park  meat  tail  big

 

My dog is called Sam and it is three years old. Is is black and _________ (11) and it has got a long ___________ (12). It has got big ears too.

I must take Sam for a walk every day. I take it to the _______________ (13) with my dad. Sam can run fast, but it can’t catch balls. Sam must eat a lot of _____________ (14), but it must not eat ice cream. It must drink lots of water too. It sleeps in my bedroom.

I _______________ (15) Sam because it is friendly and clever. When I’m sad, Sam makes me happy again!

                                         

 

 

 

 

Use of English

                                            15 minutes.

                                           Task 1.

 

Read the letter of an English boy John and choose the suitable words.

 

Dear pen friend,

Hello! My name   (16)  John. I  (17)  in Boston. I  (18)  got a big house. There  (19)  four rooms in the house. There  (20)  a living room, a dining room and two bedrooms in the house. Our kitchen is very large and my mother  (21)  there many tasty things. I  (22)  my room with my brother Ted.

Next summer we  (23)  to the camp together and we’ll have fun there. My  (24)  food is fish. My father had a job in the bank. He  (25)  that in Australia there are a lot of people from Boston.

Please write back soon.

Bye,

     John.

16

1) is

2) am

3) are

17

1) lives

2) live

3) lived

18

1) will have

2) has

3) have

19

1) is

2) am

3) are

20

1) is

2) am

3) are

21

1) cooks

2) cook

3) will cook

22

1) share

2) shares

3) shared

23

1) go

2) goes

3) shall go

24

1) favourite

2) like

3) nice

25

1) said

2) says

3) say

 

                                              Task 2.

                              Which word is different?

 26. A) Milk B) Tomato C) Steak D) Chair

 27. A) Blender B) TV C) Fridge D) Bus

 28. A) Wolf B) Horse C) Cow D) Pig

 29. A) April B) February C) Thursday D) September

 30. A) Run B) Jump C) High D) Teach

 31. A) Tomorrow B) Yesterday C) Today D) Wednesday

 32. A) Finger B) Toe C) Forehead D) Paw

 33. A) Driver B) Librarian C) Vet D) Lazy

 34. A) Behind B) Between C) In front of D) Get up

 35. A) Hedgehog B) Sparrow C) Parrot D) Swan

                                               Writing

                                      Time 15 minutes.

Imagine that your foreign friend from the Internet asked you to write him about yourself. Write an e-mail to him and tell about yourself.

Do not forget to write about:

·       your appearance

·       your family

·       your friends

·       your hobbies

You should write about 50 – 60 words.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Бланк ответов                (Answer Sheet)

Ф.И._____________________

Класс______________________________

Задание 1 .Reading (15 points)

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

9

10

11

12

13

14

15

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Задание 2. Use of English (20 points)

 

 

16

17

18

19

20

21

22

23

24

25

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

26

27

28

29

30

31

32

33

34

35

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Задание 3.Writing  (10 points)

From:____________________________________________________________ To:_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 

Keys

Reading

1

T

9

F

2

F

10

T

3

F

11

big

4

F

12

tail

5

F

13

park

6

T

14

meat

7

T

15

love

8

F

 

 

 Use of English    

16

1

26

D

17

2

27

D

18

3

28

A

19

3

29

C

20

1

30

C

21

1

31

D

22

1

32

D

23

3

33

D

24

1

34

D

25

2

35

A

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Комплект заданий для учащихся 7-8 классов

READING

Time: 20 minutes

Task 1

Read the text and the questions below. For each question, mark the correct letter A, B, C .

Circle the correct answer on your answer sheet.

Time for coffee

The story of coffee drinking is one of the greatest and most fascinating in history. Millions of coffee drinkers worldwide cannot imagine life without a cup of aromatic coffee in the morning. Coffee is a natural stimulant which makes us feel more awake, alert and ready to concentrate.

The qualities of mocca, as coffee was once known, were first discovered in Ethiopia more than one thousand years ago. However, it was not Africans but Turks and Arabs who actively encouraged coffee drinking. The habit of coffee drinking quickly spread throughout the Arab world, where coffee won a reputation as the wine of Islam.

Coffee was first grown in Yemen. It was popular with Turks who served the drink to  Italian merchants. In 1615 traders from Venice brought coffee to Europe, where it was originally sold as a medicine. By the end of the sixteenth century coffee was drunk in major European cities from Paris to London. Now, around the world there are different methods of preparing coffee, for example, in Turkey coffee is traditionally boiled three times while Italians are the inventors of espresso and cappuccino.

 

1 Coffee was discovered

a  in Europe.

b  in Africa.

c  in Asia.

2 Coffee drinking was  popularized  by

a  the Ethiopians.

b  the Italians.

c  the Turks.

3 Coffee was first grown

a  in Italy.

b  in Turkey.

C  in Yemen.

4 In Europe, coffee was popular as

a  a medicine.

b  the wine of Islam.

c  a natural stimulant.

5 By the end of the sixteenth century people drank coffee

a  in northern Europe.

b  in the most important European cities.

c   in Paris and London only.

 

Task 2

Read the holiday brochure and decide if each statement (6-10) is True (A) or False (B).

Circle the correct answer on your answer sheet.

Niagara Falls

Niagara Falls is located between Southern Ontario (Canada) and New York State (USA). The first inhabitants who settled in the Niagara Falls region were the Iroquois. They worked as farmers and trades along the banks of the Niagara River. When the first Europeans set foot in the area, they also settled there. The 19th century brought the most important developments to the area. The Village of Manchester (Niagara Falls) became an important center for manufacturing companies during the early years of the industrial development. Tourists started to arrive in the 1820s and they still visit this after almost two centuries.

The most comfortable way to visit Niagara Falls is a boat trip on the world famous Maid of the Mist. This historical boat tour takes millions of tourists to the Falls from the Canadian to the American side every year. Don’t miss two other important attractions: the White Water Walk, an amazing tour through a deep narrow gorge and the Journey Behind the Falls, a self-guided tour which takes you to an observation platform at the base of the Falls in a lift. You can then go on a short journey through some tunnels which lead you behind the Falls.

After a day of exciting adventure, visit Niagara Square with all its shops, cinemas and boutiques. There are lots of restaurants that serve locally grown products and regional cuisine. At night, experience local clubs with live music and entertainment. Don’t forget the fireworks over the Falls every Friday and Sunday!

 

 

6. This information is to help tourists who want to spend a holiday in Canada.

7. You can see the Falls only on board a boat.

8. The first people who made their home there were Europeans.

9. You can taste only local food.

10. You can have a fun at night.

 

Transfer your answers to the answer sheet!

 

 

USE OF ENGLISH

Time: 10 minutes

Read the text below and choose the correct word for each space. For each question, mark the

correct letter – A, B, C or D. Number (0) has been done for you as an example.

 

FATHERS AND SONS

 

Harry Redknapp and Frank Lampard played football together (0)……. West Ham football club during the 1960s. They (1)............... best friends and married two sisters so their sons, Frank Lampard junoior and Jamie Redknapp, are (2) ...............  . The boys’ fathers used to take them to the football field after school and make them (3) ...............  . All the hard work meant that both boys became very good (4) ............... playing football and both have played for England like their fathers. Harry and Frank (5) ............... playing football for West Ham in the 1980s. However, they didn’t leave the club. Later, Harry became the manager of West Ham and Frank senior became assistant manager. Frank junior (6) ............... them and played for West Ham (7) ............... Jamie went to the other side of the country and played for Liverpool. Jamie and Frank are friends just like their fathers and (8) ………..  spending time together when they can. But they aren’t married to two sisters. Jamies’s wife is (9) ............... pop star who hasn’t got (10) ............... sisters.

 

0.

A in

B for

C at

D аgainst

1.      

A had

B  did

C  were

D went

2.                  

A cousins

B nephews

C brothers-in-laws

D uncles

3.                  

A trained

B train

C training

D trains

4.                  

A at

B to

C with

D on

5.                  

A continued

B stopped

C began

D missed

6.                  

A attended

B added

C shared

D joined

7.                  

A so

B but

C because

D  also

8.                  

A enjoy

B want

C decide

D agree

9.                  

A the

B one

C a

D that

10.              

A some

B no

C few

D any

 

Transfer your answers to the answer sheet!

 

WRITING

Time: 20 minutes

ID NUMBER

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

What will you write to your British friend about your summer holidays?

In your letter write about:

·        where you spend your summer holidays;

·        what you like doing most of all;

·        your impressions about your holidays.

You should write about 90 -100 words.

 

________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

Participant’s ID number

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Reading

1.

a

b

c

2.

a

b

c

3.

a

b

c

4.

a

b

c

5.

a

b

c

6.

T

F

 

7.

T

F

 

8.

T

F

 

9.

T

F

 

10.

T

F

 

 

Use of English

1.

 

2.

 

3.

 

4.

 

5.

 

6.

 

7.

 

8.

 

9.

 

10.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Комплект заданий для учащихся 9-11 классов

READING

Time: 30 minutes

Florence Nightingale

Florence Nightingale’s parents were rich English land owners. Florence was born in Florence, Italy on 12 May 1820. Her parents named her after the city where she was born. Victorian women didn’t usually go to school but Florence’s father believed that women should get an education so he taught Florence and her older sister at home. they learned Italian, Latin, Greek, History and Maths.
As Florence grew up, she became interested in social problems. when she was twelve years old, she decided she wanted to do something useful with her life. She enjoyed visiting sick people in her neighbourhood.
Florence was extraordinary because most Victorian middle-class women didn’t have careers but Florence wanted to become a nurse. Her parents didn’t want her to become a nurse because nurses were usually working-class women. In fact, they didn’t want Florence to work at all, they wanted her to get married. However, her parents’ disapproval didn’t stop Florence doing what she wanted.
Florence went to Germany to learn about nursing. at that time nurses learned through experience, not through training. Florence looked after sick people, gave medicine out and helped during operations. She was very happy and she explained why: “we learned to think of our work, not ourselves.”
In 1854, Britain entered the Crimean war. Florence and a team of 38 nurses went to the Crimea to help the wounded soldiers. The military hospitals were dirty and badly organized. Florence made the hospitals clean and safe. The number of deaths in hospitals went down from 40% to 2%. Florence was kind and gentle with the soldiers. When she walked around the hospital at night she carried a lamp and that’s how she got the nickname “the Lady with the Lamp.”
After the war people from all over the world asked for her advice on designing hospitals. Florence thought nurses should learn through both experience and training. In 1860, she opened her training school for nurses. Today the Nightingale nurses still care for the sick and the poor.

1. What have you learnt about Florence’s parents?

A  They were Italian citizens.
B  They gave education to their children.
C  They learned Italian, Latin, Greek, history and maths.

 

2. How was Florence different from most other women of her time?

A  She wanted to be in work.
B  Her parents didn’t allow her to work.
C  She wanted to do something useful in her life.

 

3. How did Florence begin her career?

A  She studied to be a nurse in Germany.
B  She was working with her parents.
C  She learned the nursing skills when she cared for the sick.

4. She gave medicine out in lines 15-16 means

A  She brought medicine to a number of people.
B  She took medicine out of the hospital.
C  She made medicine for the sick.

 

5. How did Florence change hospitals?

A The number of patients went down.
B She set higher standards for hospitals.
C She put lamps everywhere in hospitals.

 

 

Here is some information about pandas. Read the information and the statements below and circle T if the statement is true, F if the statement is false or U (unstated) if there is no such information in the text.

   So rare is the giant panda that today there are thought to be only about 1000 individuals in the entire world. It is listed as an endangered species and has been seen in the wild only in the mountains of central China and eastern Tibet.
   The name panda applies to either of two East Asian animals. Although they are sometimes considered to be relative, the giant panda is generally classified as a bear, and the lesser panda, also called the red, or common panda, is placed in the raccoon family.
   The giant panda is about 4 to 5 feet (1.2 to 1.5 meters) long from the tip of its nose to its rump, and it has a stubby tail. Adults weigh about 165 to 350 pounds (75 to 160 kilograms). They have a thick, woolly, white coat with black fur on the legs and ears. The animals are distinguished by black eye patches and a black band across the shoulders.
   Giant pandas usually live alone in bamboo forests. They are mainly ground dwellers, using hollow trees, or rock crevices for shelter, but they can climb the trees as well. The giant panda feeds chiefly on bamboo shoots and roots, grasping the slender stems with the aid of a special tomblike structure on its front feet. They sometimes eat small animals.
   Giant pandas are popular zoo animals, but they are extremely difficult to breed. In 1980 there were about 40 in captivity in China and about 13 in other countries. Su-Lin, first of the very few giant pandas to be exhibited in the West, reached the United States as an infant in 1936 and was a popular attraction at the Brookfield Zoo, near Chicago, III., until his death in 1938. In April 1972 the Chinese government sent two others, a male and a female, to the National Zoo in Washington, D.C.
   The lesser panda is found in China, Myanmar, Sikkim, and Nepal in high mountain forests and bamboo thickets. Because of its unusual catlike appearance, it is sometimes called a bear cat, or cat bear. The long, soft coat hairs are rusty red to dark chestnut. The face and ears are mostly white, but the backs of the ears are reddish brown.
   The pandas travel in pairs or small family groups. Lesser pandas are known for their generally mild disposition. During the day this panda sleeps curled up in a tree with tail over its head or sitting on a limb with its head tucked under its chest and between its forelegs. It feeds at night, eating bamboo sprouts, grasses, fruits, other plant material, and, occasionally, small animals.

6) The giant panda should be protected.

7) Two pandas are of different families.

8) Red pandas live together with raccoons.

9) Giant pandas live in the holes in the ground.

10) It is not easy to grow pandas in the zoo.

11) There is special panda attraction in Chicago.

12) Su-Lin died in the zoo, because of his illness.

13) Pandas are night animals.

14) Some pandas look like raccoons, others have unusual catlike appearance.

15) Giant pandas and lesser pandas sleep in a different way.



USE OF ENGLISH

Time: 15 minutes

 

Choose the words that best complete the sentences in the text

 

Earthquakes are amongst the most destructive …………..(1) disasters. They usually …………………(2) without any warning and ………………(3) in a great  ……………………..(4) of life and an enormous demolition of buildings. Additionally, they may cause devastating landslides or create gigantic tidal waves which, in …………………….(5), are colossal walls of water smashing into seashores with such force that they are …………………(6) of destroying coastal cities. However, the …………..(7) majority of fatalities and serious injuries …………………….(8) about when buildings ……………………..(9).

Most frequently, the earthquake lasts 30 to 60 seconds, so usually there is no time to …………………(10) the mortal ……………………. (11) once the shaking starts. The savage forces of an earthquake trigger …………………….(12) a complex chain ……………………..(13) in the building’s structure when it is shaken, lifted, pushed or pulled. A building’s height  , its shape and construction materials are the most significant …………………(14) deciding about the survival or collapse of the structure and, consequently, about the life or death of its ………………………….(15).

 

  1. a) nature               b) naturalistic                 c) natural              d) native    
  2. a) hit                    b) strike                         c) fall                    d) attack
  3. a) result                b) effect                         c) lead                  d) cause
  4. a) fatality             b) waste                         c) harm                d) loss
  5. a) fact         b) certainty                    c) honesty            d) truth
  6. a) potential           b) conceivable                c) capable             d) possible
  7. a) wide                 b) broad                        c) full                     d) vast
  8. a) bring                b) come                         c) lay                      d) make
  9. a) demolish          b) jumble                      c) destroy             d) collapse
  10. a) avert                 b) evade                        c) abstain             d) restrain
  11. a) upkeep             b) upturn                      c) upshot              d) uptake
  12. a) up                    b) on                             c) out                   d) off
  13. a) activity             b) motion                      c) progress           d) reaction
  14. a) factors              b) phenomena               c) points               d) ingredients
  15. a) settlers             b) citizens                      c) inhabitants        d) burghers

 

 

 

WRITING

 

Time: 30 minutes

 

Comment on the following piece of news:

 

Perhaps fast food is  the quickest way to satisfy your hunger. But according to many experts, fast food can cause serious illnesses.

 

Write 100 -120 words.

 

Remember to

- make an introduction,

- express your personal opinion on modern expeditions and give reasons for your

opinion,

- make a conclusion.

 



 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Participant’s ID number

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

ANSWER SHEET

Reading

1.

T

F

U

2.

T

F

U

3.

T

F

U

4.

T

F

U

5.

T

F

U

6.

A

B

C

D

7.

A

B

C

D

8.

A

B

C

D

9.

A

B

C

D

10.

A

B

C

D

11.

A

B

C

D

12.

A

B

C

D

13.

A

B

C

D

14.

A

B

C

D

15.

A

B

C

D

 

Use of English

1.

 

2.

 

3.

 

4.

 

5.

 

6.

 

7.

 

8.

 

9.

 

10.

 

11.

 

12.

 

13.

 

14.

 

15.

 

Writing

 

 

____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Ключи к заданиям

7-8 классы

Reading

 

1b     2c    3c    4a    5b    6F    7F    8F     9T     10T

 

Use of English

 

1C      2A     3B    4A    5B     6D    7B     8A      9C    10D

 

9-11 классы

 

Reading

 

1B2A    3C    4A    5D    6T    7T    8F    9F     10T    11F    12U    13T     14F    15U

 

 

Use of English

 

 

  1. c

6.  c

11. c

  1. b

7.  d

12. d

  1. a

8.  b

13. d

  1. d

9.  d

14. a

  1. a

10. a

15. c

 

 

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